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I wonder... what's the actual crime here? I don't know how US law works. In my country there is no "bribe" in the private sector, it's probably still not allowed in some cases (certainly publicly traded companies), but I'm assuming Netflix wasn't a public company during that time. Can someone explain? If a director is given freedom to make certain purchasing decisions on behalf of a company (private company at that point, I assume), why specifically is it a criminal offense in the US to be rewarded money for it? (I don't mean money laundering i.e. hiding source of income, I mean the actual "bribe") [Edit] I did just find out that my country also has "management bribery" as a criminal offense within the private sector. |
If you accept considerations for your own interest - like payments or offers of subsequent employment and so on, then you are defrauding your employers. Since the payments mean that effectively there is a transfer of money from your employer to the contractor and then to you I believe that this is also a kind of theft.
At the least, it's dishonest - unless your employer understood you were doing it - in which case it's a kind of hidden remuneration I guess.