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by ndeine
4453 days ago
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The relationship f(x)=x/x is only defined for x /= 0 and thus is not equivalent to 1. We can see this in [a] when we ask for the domain of the function, and thus we can redefine some function f' as a piecewise function which is defined to have f'(0)=1, but in proofs we must thus make sure to first prove that using f' as a substitute for f does not affect our result. In one of the below posts we have the suggestion > But what if you're in a context where you're not reasoning about continuous functions at all? Why would you have to be subject to reasoning that doesn't apply to your situation? In this case you could either do the above, if you have to concern yourself with e.g. a domain of the set of real numbers arbitrarily close to the undefined location. Alternatively you could just define our original function f only for real numbers greater than 0, in which case you escape the necessity of redefining functions to be easier to work with. [a]: http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=domain+of+f%28x%29+%3D+... |
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If that's the case then:
x * f(x) = x cannot be equivalent to f(x) = x/x which breaks algebra in pretty fundamental ways (since the former would certainly be defined for 0 but the latter would not).
The second major problem is that it also breaks calculus. Let's start with a straight line: f(x) = 2x.
Now let's take the first derivative of this: f'(x) = 2x/x.
Does the line at the point where x = 0 have a slope or not? If this is discontinuous, then you have also broken calculus.
This gets as to why 0/0 is undefined, namely because when you cannot express it as a limit, and have no idea how both zeros are derived (and hence what they mean) you cannot give a specific number. You can come up with equations which for some value reduce to 0/0 but whose limits range from negative infinity all the way to positive infinity. But that doesnt mean that x/x is undefined where x = 0. x/x reduces to 1. Always. Anything else breaks higher mathematics generally.