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by kgwgk
1038 days ago
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> Knowing that there is at least one male (eliminating FF), or at least one female (eliminating MM), the probability of one male and one female is 2/3. Don't you always know that there is at least one male or one female? I mean, if A="there is at least one male" and B="there is at least one female" you're telling me that if you know that A holds the probability is 2/3 and if you know that B holds the probability is 2/3. But, knowing no additional information, you KNOW that A and/or B holds! What’s your answer to the following question? > I tell you I have two children and that I’ve just sent you an email with the sex of (at least) one of them, and ask you what you think is the probability that I have one boy and one girl. |
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Knowing that there is at least one male or at least one female eliminates zero possibilities.
Knowing that there is at least one male or knowing that there is at least one female eliminates one possibility (a different one for each case, but the difference is immaterial to the probability of a mixed pair).
> What’s your answer to the following question?
> I tell you I have two children and that I’ve just sent you an email with the sex of (at least) one of them, and ask you what you think is the probability that I have one boy and one girl.
1/2
And if you know you will be told the sex of one child, with equal probability as to which the probability remains 1/2 when you are told, even though knowing without that constraint on how you will know makes it 1/3.
Because then the possibilities are (assume you are told “male”)
MM, told birth order 1
MM, told birth order 2
MF, told birth order 1
FM, told birth order 2