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by dragonwriter
1036 days ago
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> Don't you always know that there is at least one male or one female? Knowing that there is at least one male or at least one female eliminates zero possibilities. Knowing that there is at least one male or knowing that there is at least one female eliminates one possibility (a different one for each case, but the difference is immaterial to the probability of a mixed pair). > What’s your answer to the following question? > I tell you I have two children and that I’ve just sent you an email with the sex of (at least) one of them, and ask you what you think is the probability that I have one boy and one girl. 1/2 And if you know you will be told the sex of one child, with equal probability as to which the probability remains 1/2 when you are told, even though knowing without that constraint on how you will know makes it 1/3. Because then the possibilities are (assume you are told “male”) MM, told birth order 1 MM, told birth order 2 MF, told birth order 1 FM, told birth order 2 |
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> 1/2
So you say it's 1/2 even though you know that as soon as you read the message you will update it to 2/3. Is that right?
The message says that (at least) one of them is a girl or that (at least) one of them is a boy. In either case, you state that the correct probability is 2/3.
Why not say 2/3 already then?