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by function_seven
1801 days ago
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My naive understanding is that "smaller p-value" == "more likely result is true". I know there's always more nuance in statistical reasoning, but the first number is vastly smaller than the second one, right? Is it just that both are hilariously tiny and not credible? Or is there no additional value after you get into the one-in-billions territory? |
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A nice demo of this effect is DNA matching in criminology. Although DNA matching of suspects to DNA samples can be insanely accurate, in practice it is limited by the incidence of monozygotic (identical) twins, which is about 3 in 1,000. You cannot be more certain than this that you got a match, essentially.