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by manwe150
1919 days ago
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If I'm reading that chart right, it is the percentage of sicknesses caused by each virus type, not the rate of sickness in the population. So we don't have information in this chart on the absolute prevalence. The change in relative rates may suggest which measures are relatively more effective on different viruses, but doesn't help us analyze the effectiveness of the current narrative. On the research presented in the original article, what predicted implications would this research have had for March 2020? I thought 2020 seemed like a fairly average year for colds up until March, when COVID spiked. Is that suggesting this benefit/effect weaker in a population than the test measures in a individual, or just that March could have been much worse across the world? (for example, was hypothetically Italy having a very low rate of colds at the time?) |
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That's exactly correct, and instead the poster is continuously misinterpreting a rate as a fixed quantity.