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by BoiledCabbage
1919 days ago
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> If I'm reading that chart right, it is the percentage of sicknesses caused by each virus type, not the rate of sickness in the population. So we don't have information in this chart on the absolute prevalence. The change in relative rates may suggest which measures are relatively more effective on different viruses, but doesn't help us analyze the effectiveness of the current narrative. That's exactly correct, and instead the poster is continuously misinterpreting a rate as a fixed quantity. |
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I am not. It is a measurement of the percentage of samples in a surveillance network, positive for each pathogen. Here is the methods paper:
https://publichealth.jmir.org/2018/3/e59/
Here is the relevant section:
> To calculate the pathogen detection rate (as displayed in Figure 2 [second data view] and on the Trend website), we compute the rate for each organism at each institution as a centered 3-week moving average. To adjust for the capacity differences between sites, a national aggregate is calculated as the unweighted average of individual site rates. Only data from sites contributing more than 30 tests per week is included to avoid noise from small numbers of tests. Because the calculation of pathogen detection rate includes results from patients with multiple detections, the detection rate for all organisms can, in theory, add up to greater than one. In practice, this does not occur.
The data says exactly what I described: influenza prevalence has declined to nearly zero. Rhinovirus has continued to circulate at normal levels.