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by mehrdadn
2563 days ago
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Just a layman here but that seems like a misinterpretation of the statute? The idea of the statute seems to be that the government will not void, nullify, or refuse to enforce the terms of an electronic contract. It does not state that in any given contract, private parties must accept the terms signed in any form whatsoever -- that's still left as something for those people to agree on, and Chase very clearly spelled out that that's not valid for the contract. So the "reason" for the invalidity of a contract wouldn't be that it has an electronic signature, but that one of the parties simply didn't follow the terms it set for validity (whatever they were -- in this case, that they be personally signed, and mailed by the actual account holder). So I'm very curious how legal opinions interpret the statute otherwise, since I don't see any hint that it was intended to be interpreted as allowing one of the parties to change the signing terms to include electronic signatures. |
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It makes electronic signatures as good as regular ones in interstate commerce. Period. Full stop. Caselaw supports this in spades.
The only meaningful case otherwise is where statutes explicitly require in-writing signatures (a good example is copyright transfers).
There is an intra-state version of this is UETA.