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by ldd
4189 days ago
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Say, why is the population of Andean countries (Ecuador, Colombia, Peru, Bolovia) so high in natives and 'mestizos' compared with North American countries?
The disease hypothesis puzzles me because it cannot explain the reality of such countries, where I come from.
Moreover, I'd argue that a factor was the idea that English settlers came as families instead of as unmarried men, like the Spaniards.
At any rate, I am not saying you are wrong. The evidence seems to point towards a different idea, but it is possible that I am wrong or stuff. |
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