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by hnriot 4664 days ago
Of course it does. One's values can be affirmed by evidence, or shown to be based on untruths. For example, I might have competition as one of my values, believing that its always good to be competitive and do one's best and strive to win. Then one day wake up and take stock of the accumulated evidence and realize that maybe this wasn't a good value to have held after all. It's nonsense to say values have nothi to do with evidence.
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This disagreement is a result of using the single word “value” to mean two different types of values. The values you describe are “instrumental values”. The values brugidou describes are “terminal values”. Here is a description of each: http://lesswrong.com/lw/l4/terminal_values_and_instrumental_...