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by smsm42
4832 days ago
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I don't see how it follows. For example, for a native speaker of a language that has no definite/indefinite articles, it is common to omit those in English. Also, for speakers of languages without plural or complex tense system, it is common to systematically omit plurals or use only one or two tenses in English. Would it mean that English without articles, plurals and with only present tense would not be a "bad English" but would be a language on its own? ESL students would be delighted to know their English isn't bad, it's just their own view on the English language, equally valid, I'm sure, but somehow I do not see that happening just yet. |
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