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by coldtea 18 days ago
Because the analogy he makes is with Romanticism, a specific trend/movement, for which 1800 is roughly a good reference point, whereas 1600 is not.
1 comments

And my point is that it's a label on a cyclical trend. But sure, he wanted to reason about romanticism specifically. He cuts off very early in the new century, and the romanticism presaged a 50year cycle of revolution and revolt against the congress of Vienna. The tide swung back and forth.
>And my point is that it's a label on a cyclical trend

Not so sure about that. Romanticism isn't related to Millinarianism conceptually or otherwise. The former was a re-adoption of a hollistic medieval stance on life and nature.

If you mean "some cultural things change every now and then, so a trend changing is nothing new", maybe, but it's a much smaller claim than that we see a rebirt of Romanticism specifically.

I'm not convinced Beethoven had contemporary groupies tossing him their muffs.

Liszt, however ...

* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lisztomania

* (NSFW?) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=peJ_ncxXung