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by daveguy
165 days ago
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Mendelian is characterized by effects having strong influence from a single gene. Heart disease is clearly more complex than gene -> heart disease. I thought that was basic enough that I didn't need to explain it. But here goes... A clinical score changing with treatment is not unconfounded by mendelian randomization. When the genetics are clearly more complex than what you are mathematically randomizing for, the control doesn't solve the confounding. eg you haven't suddenly "proven" the effects are non-genetic. We already knew heart disease is non-mendelian. But showing something is non-mendelian doesn't mean you've shown it's not genetic. I hope that clarifies, because I'm not sure I can explain it to you in simpler terms. |
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This is quite the tone to take when the actual point being made has demonstrably sailed over your head, considering the reference provided to you explains it very clearly.
Which is more likely - nigh on every lipidologist, cardiologist and nutrition researcher is wrong, or you might have made a mistake yourself?
> Mendelian is characterized by effects having strong influence from a single gene. Heart disease is clearly more complex than gene -> heart disease
This seems like a misunderstanding. A single SNP clearly can affect CVD risk, that’s precisely what the paper shows. The assumptions required for an MR study to be valid do not include “the outcome must only be affected by a single gene and no other gene”. It’s required that there’s no pleiotropy present in the exposure (I.e. the SNPs). The exposure here isn’t heart disease, it’s SNPs that affect LDL-c levels, and the outcome being measured is CVD. So your point doesn’t pose an issue for the study and the inferences it makes.
But honestly - just read the paper. I think both that paper and the EAS consensus paper are very approachable.