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by graboy
160 days ago
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I think maybe you are saying that there may be some way that the genes affect heart disease not through LDL, and therefore MR does not apply because the "exclusion restriction" [1] fails here? Or are you talking about a different assumption? The cited study addresses this, which is why I pointed to figure 3. They argue that if genes were causing heart disease not through LDL in any meaningful way, you wouldn't expect such a clean dose-response consistency across different genetic variants - it would be more jagged. [1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mendelian_randomization#Defini... |
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Here is a simple primer on mendelian randomization: https://www.psomagen.com/blog/what-is-mendelian-randomizatio...
Please review the key principles and assumptions section. Using MR to control for genetic confounding of heart disease fails all assumptions. Thats why it quite directly does not follow.
This is why the paper presented does not support the claim that LDL is the sole source of heart disease. I'd be interested to hear what the authors of that paper (which is legitimate) think about it being used to support the OP's claim because "mendelian randomization".