| > so does it happen before or after the "transition" takes place? As the quote you offered says, it is measured after. I suppose theoretically in some kind of bending of space and time it could be measured during the exact instant it is created, but as we return back to reality... It certainly cannot be measured before. One cannot measure that which does not exist. > market value is what actually someone paid for it and comes after Value is, let's say, intrinsic. Whereas price is the measurement of it. To use an analogy, it is like the difference between distance and length. > id say price is set before While you are certainly welcome to make up any old random definition on the spot, given that we're talking about price within the context of CPI we know it is not "set before". CPI measurement is taken in hindsight, after consumers have already made their purchases. The values it gathers are post-sale. |
so dont worry about what i wrote, whats important was what i was thinking? fair enough
If market value is the instrinsic value, how could two separate markets get different prices for the same asset?
edit: https://www.ons.gov.uk/economy/inflationandpriceindices/meth...
methodology states it is based on prices quoted