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by skeezyboy
278 days ago
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>but intent supersedes interpretation so dont worry about what i wrote, whats important was what i was thinking? fair enough If market value is the instrinsic value, how could two separate markets get different prices for the same asset? edit: https://www.ons.gov.uk/economy/inflationandpriceindices/meth... methodology states it is based on prices quoted |
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Much like, returning to our analogy, how the same distance can be different depending on the observer's frame of reference.
> methodology states it is based on prices quoted
And now read the rest. For "consumer goods and services purchased".