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by amluto
320 days ago
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How, exactly, does the “specifically studied as prep” process determine whether a person *who is taking a very long-active antiviral medication” acquired HIV? Here’s one of the papers: https://en.iacld.com/UpFiles/Documents/1e4ad0d2-4a73-4365-9b... It gives no details whatsoever about how testing was performed except to mention that both rapid and central laboratory tests were used. It does not discuss whether the study medication could interfere with testing. It does not even say whether the tests looked for antibodies, RNA or something else. The actual study protocol is in the paywalled supplement information. I’m not saying the studies are wrong. But I would be a lot more impressed if the studies actually discussed the issue. |
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"This means that before it can work the virus has already infected the cell and added its RNA to the host cells DNA permanently." is not correct, capsid inhibitors interfere before both reverse transcription and nuclear import.
Both of the drugs in Truvada, which was has had 13 years of use in the wild since approval and is very successful, are NRTIs, they work at the reverse transcription step, they are literally later in the cycle than the new drug (but before nuclear import also) and work just fine as prep.
So the whole premise for why this drug in particular shouldn't work in theory is flawed.
To your questions about how the lenacapavir trials were run and why they rule out occult infection (which is the term for what you're describing): I'd like to find more details on the study honestly. But do I think the multiple studies that convinced the FDA to give approval just completely overlook this well known concept/possibility? Not really?