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by seba_dos1
408 days ago
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> You point out the "is a" relationship, not the "is" relationship, they are different. Well, what you reacted to was, let me copy'n'paste, "Math is a language". It was you who insisted that "is" in this sentence maps to "equals" relation, so thanks for agreeing that you were wrong. |
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There are other discussions which say:
- Math is a subset of language, surely
- It's easily argued that languages are subsets of math.
Given that context, the distinction seems to be very important.
I find the following idea (paraphrasing) to be very interesting: "not only is math a subset of language, but the language and math are equal sets." I also think it's not true, but am curious how a person would support this assertion. So, my challenge is, because the logical "is" relationship is reflexive and the reflexive property does not hold here - how can this be true? The most satisfying answer has been (paraphrasing) "cause I'm using non-precise language and you should just infer what I meant." Which is fine I guess..