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by seadan83
397 days ago
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I'm reacting to: "Math is language. 'Everything' is language. Language is the image of reality." There are other discussions which say: - Math is a subset of language, surely - It's easily argued that languages are subsets of math. Given that context, the distinction seems to be very important. I find the following idea (paraphrasing) to be very interesting: "not only is math a subset of language, but the language and math are equal sets." I also think it's not true, but am curious how a person would support this assertion. So, my challenge is, because the logical "is" relationship is reflexive and the reflexive property does not hold here - how can this be true? The most satisfying answer has been (paraphrasing) "cause I'm using non-precise language and you should just infer what I meant." Which is fine I guess.. |
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