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by jltsiren
548 days ago
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The actual results in papers like these (both the paper in question and the ones you refer to) are typically of the form: "We sequenced these genomes. Then we took the noisy data, made a lot of assumptions, and applied statistical magic to estimate that the populations split approximately X generations ago. We interpret that as Y years ago." Everything beyond that is interpretation, not the result. Such results are inherently noisy and subject to assumptions. The further back in history you go, the less accurate and reliable the results will be. Ancient DNA comes with its own issues and assumptions, but it helps with the accuracy of the results. Instead of trying to infer something that happened thousands of generations ago, you may now be only hundreds or even tens of generations from the split. The clearest way forward would be sequencing Aboriginal Australian DNA from tens of thousands of years ago. Then you could get a more accurate estimate for the split between that population and other sequenced ancient populations. |
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The people that ended up in Australia were some of the earliest anatomically modern humans that successfully made the trip out and for some reason or the other were not really able to colonize Europe/Asia and kept venturing south until they ended up in Australia
Other later waves probably made it to the middle east and went back. Some made it a bit into Europe and some of asia. But it wasn't until relatively recent times, that we got waves that finally got a foothold in Europe/Asia and eventually outlasted other homo species that had dominated those areas for a 100,000 years.
I am not an anthropologist. I can't prove anything I wrote. I am just using my own common sense and the evidence that has so far been published.