| This explanation never made sense to me. Say someone gives you a $1M loan. Holy cow, it's not taxed, what a loophole! But wait, this was a loan, not a gift. So don't you eventually have to pay back the >$1M later from taxed income? So you still end up paying taxes on $1M either way? How in the world does this bypass taxes? Edit: To people bringing back the "buy, borrow, die" story: (a) Yes, I saw that a couple months ago too. It was very hand-wavy in some crucial places. And there were quite a few people pointing out flaws with the reasoning. [1] [2] (b) If dying is part of the the strategy then why is it omitted so often? (My whole point with the comment here is that the aforementioned explanation is inadequate.) (c) If having enough money to pay off your collateral-secured debts until your death is a requirement for this to work then why do so many people claim "you can do it too"? Who has that kind of money sitting around? The "Buy, Borrow, Die" post explicitly said you can't get that kind of loan until you have $300M in assets. [1] https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=41411737 [2] https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=41410808 |
At that point your stocks (and other assets like houses) have their cost-basis adjusted to the current price. So the capital gains tax on your assets are $0 as their cost basis is the same as the price so the appreciate is $0. If _you_ sold the stocks before your death then likely there would be a large gap between the cost-basis (price you bought the stock) and the current price resulting in a large capital gains tax.
So, when your estate sells the stocks to pay back the loan they pay the applicable taxes on the $0 and then uses the remaining proceeds to pay back the loan.