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by rahimnathwani
620 days ago
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The incidence of taxation is a well-studied concept in economics, with a solid theoretical foundation and empirical evidence backing it. You dismiss its application as a 'silly distinction' and repeat the fallacy that the incidence of taxation falls on the party who is legally liable. If you don't believe me, and don't want to read up on 'tax incidence', consider what would happen if sales tax were paid by retailers instead of customers. Would the flow of money change at all? Would any party be worse off or better off? |
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Why this matters is because in some cases, owners can end up ‘under water’ with even rent not covering property taxes in the US.
In other places, that may not be possible.