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by mapt 654 days ago
A liberal prohibition on violent speech is an aspirational privilege of a people who have solved all their social problems to such a degree that the credible threat of violence is never necessary for justice or progress. Or an aspirational privilege of an aristocracy who have solved all of their material problems at the expense of everybody else, and demand militant proactive protection of their hoard and their personal safety.

In our history, the credible threat of social violence has been absolutely necessary for justice & progress on numerous occasions. It's why we have everything from civil rights for racial minorities to voting rights for women to labor rights for workers to generous benefits for veterans.

The establishment response to somebody like a Martin Luther King is mockery and condemnation, and only when fear of a Malcolm X led uprising becomes salient does the political capital to sue for peace, form.

2 comments

I don't remember the effective social movements and resulting changes in society you describe coming from threats of violence (in the US). Whether it was suffrage or labor rights, the greatest power for violence was always with the status quo and not with those protesting. Often violence has brought about change in perception opposite to its intent. This was true in civil rights, gay rights, antiwar, and labor movements.

So I disagree that prohibition of violent public speech is an aspirational privilege otherwise necessary for justice and progress. A terrorist Ghandi wouldn't have been as effective against the British Raj (who could and did kill indiscriminately).

If you were talking about private speech (not threats), I would have some more understanding.

The only reason you have a 40 hour workday are due to constant rioting and unrest. these strikes weren't just unhappy people with picket signs, they literally "called in the Pinkertons" to beat them into submission, and most of the strikes going back to the 1800s had some component of violence.

Apropos of the date, the Pullman Strikes are the reason we have Labor Day as a national holiday. 70 people died during that strike and around 60 more were seriously wounded. Violence was common during strikes in the 1800s, but Pullman was especially chaotic -- but par for the course as global labor struggles went.

> I don't remember the effective social movements and resulting changes in society you describe coming from threats of violence (in the US)

I can think of 2.

The end of the reconstruction period (slash-start-of-Jim-Crow) was brought about by violence (and threats of violence). The newly-formed KKK and fellow travellers successfully used lynchings to deter the formerly enslaved from participating in the political process (as candidates and voters), which was the status quo.

The Stonewall riots were were a another one - I'm certain there are more examples in between those 2.

> end of the reconstruction period

To be fair civil rights and relative racial equality was imposed by an (effectively) foreign army of occupation.

That army leaving is what led to Jim Crow, there was hardly any meaningful bottom-top societal change since the local Republican governments could have never survived without significant external support anyway.

KKK/etc. were effectively an unofficial enforcement branch / citizen militia of the local elites and state governments.

IMHO the situation was a bit like the war in Afghanistan (just with a slightly narrower cultural gap). Women rights could only survive as long as the US/NATO force were there to impose them and they reverted to the status quo as soon as the foreign militaries left.

> don't remember the effective social movements and resulting changes in society you describe coming from threats of violence (in the US).

I mean there was the whole civil war thing…

If a movement has millions of people, possibility of violence is implied if you piss then off enough.

Agreed, but the US Civil war wasn't started over mean tweets or nasty letters. There were armies and battlefields. The Declaration of Causes of Seceding States wasn't threatening individual lives, but simply said that some states need not respect the federal union.

Also, that threat of violence didn't lead to the success of the Confederacy, but to its destruction.

>In our history, the credible threat of social violence has been absolutely necessary for justice & progress

Even in very similar Anglosphere cultures like Britain, a liberal constitutional monarchy, all of that had been achieved, even earlier in many cases, without the overt glorification of violence as a normal part of the political process.

In fact liberal monarchies, even before they were democratic had done a pretty good job of delivering steady progress without being dogmatic on speech or even justifying violent revolution. Just assuming for a second we agree on a broad notion of progress if you draw the US on a graph next to her a little bit less rebellious peers I don't think it's that clear that the violence was necessary.

You seem unfamiliar with the vast bulk of history of the "Four Lions" region (now called the United Kingdom).

Just one snippet:

    The Peterloo Massacre took place at St Peter's Field, Manchester, Lancashire, England, on Monday 16 August 1819. Eighteen people died and 400–700 were injured when cavalry charged into a crowd of around 60,000 people who had gathered to demand the reform of parliamentary representation.
As a peer comment points out there were many civil and uncivil wars.
The fact that you're using an incident that resulted in only 18 deaths to prove your point is evidence that, yes, England since the English Civil War has been an unusually peaceful and law-abiding part of the world.
This one incident in English political history appears more violent than, say, the US Kent State massacre:

    The Kent State shootings were the killing of four and wounding of nine unarmed college students by the Ohio National Guard
Is it your position that the US state has been more violent toward citizens than the "liberal constitutional monarchy" in the UK, less violent, or about the same.

Modern English monarchy history easily traces back to 1066 and the political history to the issue of the Magna Carta in 1215.

It's selective to limit political violence to last Civil War (of many wars | rebellions of the last 800 years) and blinkered to claim that the modern UK doesn't put the boot in (eg: Thatcher during the miners strikes .. instigated by the Thatcher government in a deliberate ploy to break trade unions across all industries).

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ridley_Plan

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_Orgreave

My position is that both the UK since the end of the English Civil War (1646) and the US since the end of the American Civil War (1865) have been unusually free of internal political violence.

In contrast, the Chinese Civil War (ending in 1949) was bloodier than any conflict in the 20th Century except the 2 world wars, and Rwanda had a little internal conflict in 1994 that resulted in the death of 491,000–800,000 citizens (of the Tutsi ethnic group). Also since the 1980s, 350,000–1,000,000+ have been killed and 2,000,000–3,800,000 displaced by internal conflicts in Somalia. Also, Libya and Syria more recently.

>Modern English monarchy history easily traces back to 1066 . . . It's selective to limit political violence to last Civil War.

It is the recent centuries of the history of a country that is the most informative for predicting what will happen in the future.

> both the UK since the end of the English Civil War (1646)

Only if we exclude Ireland and the Scottish Highlands which were both part of the UK.

Being on an island and mostly free from foreign threats (compared to countries continental Europe) helped though. Scandinavia for instance has also been similarly peaceful (if not more so) in the same period.

Twelve years later:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Days_of_May

> The BPU had made its reputation amid the spontaneous rioting that had accompanied the fall of the First Reform Bill in 1831, assembling 150,000 protesters at Newhall Hill in the largest political assembly the country had ever seen.[15] Its threat to reorganise itself along semi-military lines in November 1831 had led to suggestions that it was trying to usurp the civil authority, and made a deliberate, if implicit, threat of the possibility of armed revolt in the event of the formation of an anti-reform government.

Ultimately led to https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reform_Act_1832 which dramatically expanded the voting franchise.

The French Revolution, and the almost total destruction of an aristocratic/noble/royal system, was the subtext of every bottom-up political movement in Europe in this era.

Only if we restrict it to England/Lowland-Scotland specifically and not the occupied territories in Ireland and the Scottish highlands.

But even there it was in large part only the case because the Hanoverian regime was highly effective at suppressing any type of dissent in pretty brutal ways.

> law-abiding part of the world.

The existence of the ‘Bloody Code’ would imply otherwise.

They functioned as a method of class suppression.

The English civil war wasn't violent to you? even the glorious revolution was very violent by modern standards. not to mention the following jacobite "rebellions".
You mean the glorious revolution that is also called the Bloodless Revolution?
The deposition of James II and VII (same person, different kingdoms) in November 1688 was a singular event that followed the wider 1639 to 1653 Wars of the Three Kingdoms, which included The English Civil War (a series of civil wars and political machinations from 1642 to 1651)

A singular action with no bloodshed that followed a period in which bodies were stacked high, including over a hundred thousand non combat civilians.

A singular action with no bloodshed that sparked a long series of bloody revolts that began in March 1689, with major outbreaks in 1715 and 1719, and culminated in the Jacobite rising of 1745.

Yes - he did mention the day James was deposed, you ignored the rest of century that surrounded that day.

My point is the having already mentioned the English Civil War (which I concede was quite bloody) the comment I replied to goes on to mention the Glorious Revolution, which (even if we adopt your definition) is double counting.
It was bloodless for the time but was still a foreign expeditionary force marching on London in the middle of the 9 years war. Considering us moderns clutch our Pearl's at an obese person getting a heart attack during an "insurrection" it's fair to say it was violent by today's standards.
No. It hasn't. Liberals are just motivated to be forgetful and not to teach this part of history very well.

As far as I can tell, people in the UK have the right to vote because of, variously:

The Parliament setting the King straight on who would win in a fight

* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/English_Civil_War

* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trial_of_Charles_I

The Parliament gradually setting the King straight on whose support he needs to enact foreign policy, and the King's failures strengthening opposition in Parliament over the course of

* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Revolution

* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/War_of_the_First_Coalition

* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/George_III

An apocalyptic and thereafter omnipresent fear of the aristocracy losing their heads after the French Revolution, leading to cycles of tyrannical repression of the working class alternating with massive working class actions.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Six_Acts

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peterloo_Massacre

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/French_Revolution

Violence from radical working & middle class suffragists following this period

* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Days_of_May

* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reform_Act_1832

The threat of violence from radical working class suffragists, tinged with the prospect of religious and Irish revolutionary violence

* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reform_League#Hyde_Park_demons...

* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reform_League#English_Civil_Wa...

* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reform_Act_1867

Numerous peaceful and less peaceful actions over many years by women's suffragists, including a protracted terrorist bombing campaign

* https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Women%27s_suffrage_in_the_Unit...

You could go on, but I'm no expert on UK history. Social change in UK democracy seems to mostly demand angry disenfranchised masses, a very few sympathetic ears in the House of Lords, and a larger body of Parliament & middle class people who want to strike some kind of nonviolent compromise and maintain order even if giving up some power offends.

The US is very similar in that this is the stuff we don't like to talk about. The fact that our military fought a brief, bloody war or two against mining unions before any labor rights were recognized was a single decontextualized paragraph in my history textbook at age 15, and was never mentioned again.