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by NaiveBayesian
692 days ago
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I believe that counterexample only works in the limit where the sample size goes to infinity. Every finite sample will have μ≠0 almost surely.(Of course μ will still tend to be very close to 0 for large samples, but still slightly off) So this means the sequence of μₙ will perform a kind of random walk that can stray arbitrarily far from 0 and is almost sure to eventually do so. |
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