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by thisgoesnowhere
807 days ago
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The law can be written in a way that leaves it up for interpretation. It's not a simple IFTTT statement, what's why judges exist and why they make rulings that get cited in other cases. It's a feature of our system that I don't need to answer all your needlessly pedantic questions and just leave it up to interpretation. Because otherwise bureaucrates like you would cause everything to stall while looking into every contingency. I also don't think you have to "pass a law" we already have laws on the book that can do this and, this might shock you, we have already used them to do almost exactly what you are saying here. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/United_States_v._Paramount_P.... |
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So now you want unelected judges to decide what can and can’t be streamed on the internet.
This is also not the 1930s. In 2024, movie distribution is not limited to physical meets theaters.
Your citation gets trotted out all of the time in these arguments like anyone in 2024 can’t put a video on a website and distribute it anywhere in the world. When the ruling was in effect, home video media didn’t even exist and even television was in its infancy.
And you still haven’t answered the question, do you also stop foreign companies from distributing thier own content ?
And there is always judge shopping, liberal judges would love to stop Fox News from distributing their own content on the internet as would conservative judges love to stop media owned by “woke” corporations