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by nobody9999
849 days ago
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In fact, the claim is explicit. "Congress shall make no law..." And that extended to the states by the 14th Amendment. Passing a law forcing someone (or a group of "someones", which is what a corporation is) to host/amplify speech they don't wish to host/amplify is "abridging free speech" and is explicitly forbidden by the First Amendment. No interpretation required. |
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The original claim here was a corporation cannot infringe first amendment rights.
That was followed by the claim that this is actually in the Constitution.
But the constitution does not say this. It says (if you go with the corporations-are-people-with-first-amendment-rights interpretation) that the government may not abridge the first amendment rights of corporations (and, usually the accompanying implicit coda, nor the rights of individuals using technology provided by corporations).