|
|
|
|
|
by PaulDavisThe1st
849 days ago
|
|
You're reading this backwards. The original claim here was a corporation cannot infringe first amendment rights. That was followed by the claim that this is actually in the Constitution. But the constitution does not say this. It says (if you go with the corporations-are-people-with-first-amendment-rights interpretation) that the government may not abridge the first amendment rights of corporations (and, usually the accompanying implicit coda, nor the rights of individuals using technology provided by corporations). |
|
Yes, because the first amendment is explicitly about rights protecting you from the government.
If a law says "the government can't do X to you", then nothing individuals or corporations do can violate that law. Obviously. I'm not sure why this is difficult to grasp.
"Precedent" would imply that this is merely the interpretation of earlier courts, but no, the first amendment is quite explicit about what the rights therein are protecting you from, and it's not private groups.