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by Tazerenix
901 days ago
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A theorem which is true in every model is provable by Godel's completeness theorem. Since this theorem is true for the standard model of the natural numbers but not provable, it follows there are nonstandard models of the natural numbers for which it is false. That is, there are models of Peano arithmetic which contain all of the natural numbers we know and love, and some other ones on top of that and there are some Goodstein sequences using those extra "non-standard" natural numbers which do not terminate at zero. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Non-standard_model_of_arithmet... |
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I've always found the provable vs true comparison confusing. How can we say the statement is true under the standard model if we cannot prove it? I understand that it could be true, but how do we know it? If it's proven with second order arithmetic, then this implies it is true under the standard model too?
Or are there statements true independently of the axiomatic system you use to prove them? (Apologies if this is too off-topic)