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by thorel
1020 days ago
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This idea of giving "meaning" to a set of axioms is precisely captured by the notion of "interpretation" in logic [1]. The rough idea is to map the symbols of the formal language to some pre-existing objects. As you say, this gives one way of formalizing truth: a sentence (string of symbols that respect the syntax of your language) is true if it holds for the objects the sentence is referring to (via a chosen interpretation). This notion of truth is sometimes referred to as semantic truth. An alternative approach is purely syntactic and sees a logical system as collection of valid transformation rules that can be applied to the axioms. In this view, a sentence is true if it can be obtained from the axioms by applying a sequence of valid transformation rules. This purely syntactic notion of truth is known as “provability”. Then the key question is to ask whether the two notions coincide: one way to state Godel's first incompleteness theorem is that it shows the two notions do not coincide. [1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Interpretation_(logic) |
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It's even more subtle than that. They do coincide in a sense, which is proven by Gödel's completeness theorem (well, at least in First-Order Logic). That one just says that a sentence is provable from some axioms exactly iff it's true in every interpretation that satisfy the axioms.
So one thing that Gödel's first incompleteness theorem shows it's that it's impossible to uniquely characterise even a simple structure such as the natural numbers by some "reasonable"[0] axioms - precisely because there will always be sentences that are correct in some interpretations but not in others.
Unless you use second-order logic - in which case the whole enterprise breaks down for different reasons (because completeness doesn't hold for second order logic).
[0] reasonable basically means that it must be possible to verify whether a sentence is an axiom or not, otherwise you could just say that "every true sentence is an axiom"