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by Tainnor
1021 days ago
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> Then the key question is to ask whether the two notions coincide: one way to state Godel's first incompleteness theorem is that it shows the two notions do not coincide It's even more subtle than that. They do coincide in a sense, which is proven by Gödel's completeness theorem (well, at least in First-Order Logic). That one just says that a sentence is provable from some axioms exactly iff it's true in every interpretation that satisfy the axioms. So one thing that Gödel's first incompleteness theorem shows it's that it's impossible to uniquely characterise even a simple structure such as the natural numbers by some "reasonable"[0] axioms - precisely because there will always be sentences that are correct in some interpretations but not in others. Unless you use second-order logic - in which case the whole enterprise breaks down for different reasons (because completeness doesn't hold for second order logic). [0] reasonable basically means that it must be possible to verify whether a sentence is an axiom or not, otherwise you could just say that "every true sentence is an axiom" |
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There, the obstacle is in some sense of a simplest nature: if your set of axioms admits a countable model, then it admits models of all infinite cardinalities. In other words, it shows that there is something fundamentally impossible in trying to capture an infinite structure (like numbers) by finite means (e.g. recursively axiomatizable).