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by TekMol
1082 days ago
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So the stock markets of two of the biggest countries in the world (Russia and China) went to zero quite recently (1917 and 1949). And the author summarizes that stock markets can't go to zero? How does that make sense? Even his closing statement contradicts itself: So in conclusion, rest assured
that as long as you are properly
diversified, your stock investments
won’t go to zero.
If you should diversify, then that shows that each piece of your portfolio has a chance to go to zero. So the combined chance of going to zero is not zero either.This brings up an interesting question: How high is this long-tail risk of a European investor who invests in US stocks? The risk that Europe at some point decides to seize their peoples stocks. Or that the US decides to not respect holdings by Europeans anymore. What happened to Chinese and Russian people who held US stocks which they bought via the Chinese/Russian stock market? Did those investments got wiped out too? Did their governments seize those? Or did the remeining investors in the US had a gain from the Chinese/Russian investors "disappearing"? |
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And as far as I can tell, at least with the Shanghai Stock Exchange, it didn't go to zero in 1950. It was simply closed and liquidated, and that implies that people got back whatever the market value was. That isn't going to zero. I don't know if the money was confiscated by the government or not.
So if one's diversification strategy needs to somehow take into account literal revolution, then I'm not sure how one does that. All bets are off.