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by bboygravity
1080 days ago
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> via a US broker, then they ought to be able to claim legal ownership of those stocks they purchased. This is a funny sentence if you know how US brokers operate, because:
-- The stock is registered at Cede and Co. In your broker's name (not the client's name).
-- Most US brokers don't hold all the stock that their clients "have" in their account. They lend out stock with or without the client's approval.
-- It has happened that a broker doesn't own the stock that any of their clients bought through them at all.
-- Brokers can buy unsettled stock for clients which subsequently "fails to deliver". Meaning: the client gave the broker money to buy a stock, the broker gave nothing in return (but claims that the client has a stock even though it was never delivered).
-- In the US it is entirely possible that a company on the stock market offers x amount of stock and market participants short 2x while 3x amount of call options are in the money to be delivered and brokers are on the hook for that. That means that 5*x of stock can "exist" even though that amount was never issued by the company. Source: this is what happened during January 2021 short squeeze. So yeah, you have legal ownership. Until you suddenly don't at some point in the future. |
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that's totally fine if it was lent and re-lent out and short sold etc.
After all, you don't bat an eye that similar thing happens with cash!
The only problem i have with your explanation, which is also the only part i dont think is true, is that the broker's "fail to deliver" portion. The broker _owes_ the buyer a stock, and there's a clearing house that ensures the broker is good for their money. Which is why Robinhood stopped the purchases of GME at that short squeeze, because they can't place enough deposit to ensure that they _could_ make whole their buyers at the clearinghouse.