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by jameshart 1097 days ago
Yes, I don’t think it’s possible to observe a simpson’s paradox in a simple conversion test, either.

Simpson’s paradox is about spurious correlations between variables - conversion analysis is pure Bayesian probability.

It shouldn’t be possible to have a group as a whole increase its probability to convert, while having every subgroup decrease its probability to convert - the aggregate has to be an average of the subgroup changes.

2 comments

Are you sure?

Consider the case where iOS users are more likely to convert than Android users, but you currently have very few iOS users. You then A/B test a new design that imitates iOS, but has awful copy. Both iOS and Android users are less likely to convert, but it attracts more iOS users.

The group as a whole has higher conversion because of the demographic shift, but every subgroup has less.

I don't follow. If one bucket has many more iOS users, it seems like you have done a bad job randomizing your treatment?
It could be self-selection happening after you randomized the groups. For example a desktop landing page advertising an app, which might be installed on either mobile operating system.
Simpson's paradox is sometimes about spurious correlations, but the original paradox Simpson wrote about was simply a binary question with 84 subgroups, where 3 or 4 subgroups with the outlying answer just had a significant enough amount of all samples, and a significant enough effect, to mutate the whole.