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by XorNot 1160 days ago
This is just you declaring "no you can't" without supporting that in any way.

How is a theory of physics not a loss minimisation process? The history of science is literally described in these terms i.e. the Bohr model of the atom is wrong, but also so useful that we still use it to describe NMR spectroscopy.

Why did we come up with it? Because their aren't infinite ways to measure the universe, there are in fact very limited ways defined by our technology. Good ones, high loss minimisation, generally then let us build better technology to find more data.

You're invoking infinities which don't exist as a handwave for "understanding is a unique part of humanity" to try and hide that this is all metaphysical special pleading.

1 comments

Alright...

What loss was being minimised to find F=GMm/r^2? Or any law of physics you like.

Gravitation was literally about predicting future positions of the stars, and was successful because it did so much better then any geocentric model. How is that not a loss minimization activity?

And before we had it, epicycles were steadily increasing in complexity to explain every new local astronomical observation, but that model was popular because it gives a very efficient initial fit of the easiest data to obtain (i.e. the moon actually does go around the Earth, and with only 1 reference point the Sun appears to go round the Earth too). But of course once you have a heliocentric theory, you can throw all those parameters and every new prediction lines up nearly perfectly (accounting for how much longer it would take before we had precise enough orbital measurements to need Relativity to fully model it).

When the law of gravitation was formulated, it could not in fact be used to predict orbits reliably (Kepler's ellipses are the solution to the two body problem anyways, and for a more complex system integration was impossible to any useful precision at the time), and Kepler's theories came out long before it did.

It took more than 70 years after its formulation for the law to actually be conclusively tested against observations in a conclusive manner.

Also note that Copernicus' heliocentric model retained the geocentric model's epicycles on circular orbits. It really took Kepler to make a better model. And it was better because it was explanatory to boot, and not only predictive.

At some point, the metaphor of "loss minimisation" starts to break down. When we're talking about science, there's much more we want to do than minimise some loss function- that nobody has ever written down anyway. We want to be able to say "this is how the world works". The language of function optimisation is simply not the right language to do anything like that.

Even Vladimir Vapnik turned to poetry to try and increase the information available to statistical learners. Let me see if I can find that paper...

Sure but it was a better fit, and before that heliocentric models were definitely the only way forward that didn't keep adding terms every time someone spotted a moon.

Occam's razor - do not multiply terms without necessity - is essentially a loss function.

You're talking about Kepler's model here, not about the gravitational equation. The gravitational equation was not a better fit than Kepler at that time, especially since it used unknown constants.
So would you care to comment on how this relates to the original contention, which is the claim that a loss function could not discover Newton's law of gravitation?

Because what you're arguing, extensively, is that due to lack of fit, Newton's Law of Gravitation wasn't settled science until observational data was of sufficient fidelity to clearly distinguish it.

Which sure sounds like a loss function.