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by staunton
1199 days ago
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Yes, you can define "having an opinion" to be something that only humans can do. Then you have to use a different term when talking about language models. In that case, asking whether the models have opinions is pointless because you defined it as impossible. Thus, when people use "opinion" in such a discussion, it must be assumed to mean something that a language model could have. The question being discussed then is whether this particular language model does. I think this distinction is neither useful nor interesting. |
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I started this thread simply by saying that the GP had applied a falsifiability standard to Chomsky that they weren't applying to their own reasoning when saying more or less that the model would have opinions were it not for artificial restrictions imposed by the programmers[1]. If whether the model has an opinion or not is a matter of definition that seems inherently unfalsifiable. However if we can establish a more objective basis then it could be falsifiable. I just don't know what that basis might be.
[1] Apologies if this is a mischaracterization - I genuinely don't mean to do so if it is.