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by Retric 1259 days ago
Depends, dollar cost averaging shifts things around. For a typical 401k style investor having down years mid career improves returns at retirement, but then increases risks in retirement.
4 comments

The average investor also has less money to invest during down years though.
The “average” investor gets paid cash and not in stock.

The public tech company employee has less to invest because a large portion of their income is in stock.

The private tech company employee is screwed because statistically, they have equity that won’t amount to shit in a bull market let alone a bear market.

The average investor includes people who lose their jobs during downturns.
What’s the unemployment rate - right now?
> The “average” investor gets paid cash and not in stock.

Not if they're unemployed, which is more likely in down markets.

The "average" investor is in jobs less hit by typical recession/down market impacts, since the odds of a hospitality worker or barista having a retirement account in the first place is much lower than the odds of a white collar employee.
The point of comparison would be average reduction in investment vs average reduction in stock price. It’s true people invest less, but stocks take much larger drops than the reduction in the workforce.
We have an existence proof that the stock market being down is not correlated with widespread unemployment
I found a woman who is taller than a man, which is an existence proof that being a woman is not correlated with being shorter than men.
So far, in this one specific downturn, sure. There is however a strong historical correlation between market downturns and widespread unemployment.
And in April 2020, we also had proof that the stock market being up isn't correlated with widespread employment.
With DCA you have the additional costs of keeping cash around. Unless you mean serial lump sum (investing when you get paid).
That's typically why people DCA.

Besides, isnt the opportunity cost is completely independent of the return you're getting from the sp500?

Serial lump sum is not quite DCA. Both involve a series of purchases.

The opportunity cost is the inverse of the S&P500 in that case.

Not completely as typical 401K investor would change their allocations from equity to non-equity.
No, the typical 401k investor does not change their allocations.
Target-date retirement funds automatically do.
Only when you’re getting close to the target retirement date. Even those funds benefit from downturns early to mid-career.
And even these days the typical investor probably uses a financial advisor, who would do such fund reallocation, even if they don't use target date funds explicitly (which they should).
Do they really? When I've looked around at financial advisors they've wanted at least several percent annually of AUM, which, to my mind, is just insane.
I agree. I don’t use them myself. There are few-only financial advisors though, which are all I’d recommend people use.

I’m just saying financial advisors are common. Not that they should be.

For this hypothetical, I don't think it makes sense to consider anything but a typical 401k investor that only invests in the sp500. Thats all that we're tracking here.
How would that increase risks in retirement?
When spending down money you get the reverse of cost dollar averaging. In a good year you might sell say 1,000 shares but in a down year you might need to sell twice that to take out the same money. This means more of your shares are sold in down years than good years.

This is why people say to increase the bond ratio in retirement, but that also reduces expected returns.

It shouldn't if you transition to heavier weighting of cash/bonds as you approach retirement (which most people do and most financial planners advise)