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by noobermin
1372 days ago
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Does "gender gap" here matter more than what larger fractions show? For example, they say "women desire more Affirmation" but 49% have it as a top two while 56% have "time" in the top two. Men also have 54% for time in the top two. I feel like that's more interesting than looking at percentage differences (which tbh don't really seem to matter that much for this statistic). EDIT: a striking example of this, they say "women give more gifts" in terms of LL they express, as a finding. But only 32% have this as a top two expressed LL, so a good majority of women don't even have gifts as a top two expressed LL. So, who cares about the percent difference 8%, does it matter? What does it even mean? What if 1% of men did X vs 9% of women? Why would the interesting takeaway be "wow, women are more likely than men to do X!!" vs. "gee, a sheer minority of people do X at all." Saying the words "women are more likely than men to do X" leaves the reader unfortunately with the impression "many women do X," whereas that might not be true. |
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I wonder if this is related to "X is better than Y." leading to "How dare you say X isn't bad!" I didn't, X can be extremely horrible, it can be the second most horrible thing to exist. The only qualifier I gave was that Y was at least one rank more horrible than X. If instead I had used "Y is worse than X" this likely wouldn't have happened.
I'm wondering if many people, when reading a relative comparison, imagine it in some absolute setting and then assume that was the intended information to convey. If your case they imagine a case where more women than men do X, meaning they imagine a whole lot of women doing X and very few men doing X, even though it could actually have been 2 of every million women vs 1 of every million men.