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by ephbit
1460 days ago
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> There is no wealth distribution in a hard money paradigm that makes sense. Care to explain how one can come to this claim based on first principles? Maybe I'm misinterpreting this sentence of yours. I read it as: a hard money paradigm will inevitably lead to a very undesirable wealth distribuation (Gini coefficient --> 1) and there's no way to fix/prevent this other than moving from hard money to soft money. I'd refute this claim. There are completely obvious ways to prevent Gini --> 1. Effective redistribution from wealthy to poor. The only hurdle to that is political systems, voters, governments or monarchs deciding to and then enacting it. Absolutely possible. |
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Besides that, if the current wealth distribution (under non hard money) isn't all but a calamity, then what is it?
Also most states are currently doing effective redistribution of wealth so it's clearly something that can be done. One issue though in most states is that the redistribution is getting outpaced by countering effects, so it's insufficient.