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by bwestergard
1509 days ago
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If you actually read that Wikipedia article, you will see that many eminent historians do not apply the term "feudalism" outside of Europe at all, and of those that do, qualify that application heavily to emphasize the peculiarity of the social formations of Europe in the middle ages. For a view of feudalism that treats it as distinctively European, below is a quote from Perry Anderson in "Passages from Antiquity to Feudalism" (p19). If you doubt the relevance of Anderson, consider that he is not just quoted in the article linked above, but that he edits the journal in which it was published. > The dual predecessors of the feudal mode of production were, of course, the decomposing slave mode of production on whose foundations the whole enormous edifice of the Roman Empire had once been constructed, and the distended and deformed primitive modes of production of the Germanic invaders which survived in their new homelands, after the barbarian conquests. These two radically distinct worlds had undergone a slow disintegration and creeping interpenetration in the last centuries of Antiquity. |
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