[eliasmacpherson]

Your argument here is again premised on the benefits of colonialism & post colonialism outweighing the costs of colonialism, but exceptions like South Korea and e.g. Singapore do not prove the rule. It's completely unrealistic to compare these success stories, and the idea of 'no contact'. The reality is far grimmer. The comparison is to be made between what could have happened, and what did. The 'net' benefit then becomes very clear.

South Korea & Co are no longer intentionally oppressed. There are many other countries besides them that continue to be.

It's absurd to argue that because the developed countries could benefit more from Africa than they already do, that Africa is not oppressed. South America also.

> They could maybe argue that underdeveloped countries have been oppressed intentionally for the benefit of the military industrial complex, but that's very distinct to arguing that that happened in order to maintain our lifestyle

Every industrial complex besides that too. Raw materials are vitally important. Every act of Foreign Policy is done in order to maintain a lifestyle, to protect national interests. I don't know how you can argue that it is not.

> I believe the truth of that statement may have been different 100-200 years ago, where colonialism was done to pillage resources. No longer so in the modern globalized world.

I think you should really look at what resources are being exracted from Africa and South America, by whom and for what level of profit.

[csee]

  "The comparison is to be made between what could have happened, and what did."

Disagree. If the question we are asking is whether developed countries have provided a net benefit, the hypothetical has to be with them never having interacted with the country in question at all.

  "South Korea & Co are no longer intentionally oppressed."

This is the No True Scotsman fallacy.

  "Every act of Foreign Policy is done in order to maintain a lifestyle, to protect national interests. I don't know how you can argue that it is not."

I already provided my argument. In the modern world we are richer when they are richer due to comparative advantage. Afghanistan made us much poorer, not richer, besides one or two special interests. More countries like SK means more wealth for us.

[eliasmacpherson]

The hypothetical does not have any such restriction on it, your star-trek hypothetical is as valid as mine, even if it is less realistic.

You are the one generalizing South Korea to say that intentional oppression does not occur, there is a 'net benefit'. Intentional oppression does not have to be universal to be true, it is selective and opportunistic in nature. The short years of benefit in South Korea do not undo the horrors elsewhere.

The argument that you stand to benefit even more does not invalidate any facts of their intentional oppression, past or present. Don't be absurd.

Minor addition: I don't believe you can say it's a 'No True Scotsman' situation unless you also consider South Korea to be 'underdeveloped' currently.