[csee]

  "The comparison is to be made between what could have happened, and what did."

Disagree. If the question we are asking is whether developed countries have provided a net benefit, the hypothetical has to be with them never having interacted with the country in question at all.

  "South Korea & Co are no longer intentionally oppressed."

This is the No True Scotsman fallacy.

  "Every act of Foreign Policy is done in order to maintain a lifestyle, to protect national interests. I don't know how you can argue that it is not."

I already provided my argument. In the modern world we are richer when they are richer due to comparative advantage. Afghanistan made us much poorer, not richer, besides one or two special interests. More countries like SK means more wealth for us.

[eliasmacpherson]

The hypothetical does not have any such restriction on it, your star-trek hypothetical is as valid as mine, even if it is less realistic.

You are the one generalizing South Korea to say that intentional oppression does not occur, there is a 'net benefit'. Intentional oppression does not have to be universal to be true, it is selective and opportunistic in nature. The short years of benefit in South Korea do not undo the horrors elsewhere.

The argument that you stand to benefit even more does not invalidate any facts of their intentional oppression, past or present. Don't be absurd.

Minor addition: I don't believe you can say it's a 'No True Scotsman' situation unless you also consider South Korea to be 'underdeveloped' currently.