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by Spooky23 1714 days ago
The individual used a male name, so it’s reasonable to make that assumption in common speech.

In terms of individual vs group, it seems unlikely that a group would have the discipline to not do anything with billions of dollars or expose the individual with control of the same.

1 comments

>The individual used a male name, so it’s reasonable to make that assumption in common speech.

As long as you don't know it's a pseudonym, yes. I don't know when that became generally accepted.

Right. I’ve never experienced dialog or writing where somebody elects a gendered pronoun based on the pseudonymous handle used to reference the antecedent when their gender is either irrelevant, unspecified, or unknown. I’m curious which communities practice this colloquially?