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by perl4ever 1714 days ago
>The individual used a male name, so it’s reasonable to make that assumption in common speech.

As long as you don't know it's a pseudonym, yes. I don't know when that became generally accepted.

1 comments

Right. I’ve never experienced dialog or writing where somebody elects a gendered pronoun based on the pseudonymous handle used to reference the antecedent when their gender is either irrelevant, unspecified, or unknown. I’m curious which communities practice this colloquially?