What I’m saying is that if you create a bank and I make a $1m deposit [0] your bank has Liabilities : deposit $1m
Assets : reserves $1m
Now you can lend $900k to someone, who takes the money and tranfers it to someone else’s account in another bank to buy bitcoins or whatever. Your bank has now Liabilities : deposit $1m
Assets : reserves $100k, loan $900k
And you cannot make more loans until you increase your reserves which means getting new deposits (so we’re no longer talking about a bank with $1m in deposits).Say you get an additional million in deposits, your bank has now Liabilities : deposits $2m
Assets : reserves $1.1m, loan $900k
And it could lend and additional $900k.Alternatively, it could get funding from another source like borrowing from banks of issuing bonds. For example Liabilities : deposit $1m, bond $1m
Assets : reserves $1.1m, loan $900k
I don’t think any of this is controversial, let alone wrong. By the way, for simplicity in those balanced sheets the “reserves” is all the funding available which has not been lent, not just the required reserves ($100k for $1m in deposits, etc.)> If the banking system as a whole is leveraged 9:1, that implies each individual bank is leveraged approximately 9:1. One of the main points of the paper under discussion is that this doesn’t happen. Reserves are not a binding constraint on lending. [0] I don’t know if it makes much sense to talk about whether it is “actual cash”. Maybe my employer took a loan to pay me, maybe not. Maybe it was in cash, maybe by cheque, maybe by bank transfer. Would that change anything? |
Only Central Bank reserves and cash are considered "money" in this system. And I'm saying the "money" is leveraged 9:1 in our toy example, whereas you seem to be saying assets must always be greater than liabilities - which obviously I agree with. Since if they weren't, the bank would be insolvent.