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by kgwgk
1742 days ago
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> My only point was individual banks, can lend up to whatever the reserve requirement is. If it was 10%, $1M in reserves at the central bank means the bank can could make $10M worth of loans. Do we disagree on this point? I agree that bank can lend up to whatever the reserve requirement is. But the next sentence is extremely misleading at best. For that bank with $1m in deposits and $1m in reserves before any lending that 10% requirement means that it can not let its reserves go below 100k (10% times $1m in deposits) so it can only lend up to $900k out. I can agree if you say "the bank can make $9m worth of loans provided that the recipients of the loans never get them of the bank [and it ends with $10m in deposits]". That is reasonable (even approximatively true) for the banking system as a whole but is a ridiculous implicit assumption for an individual bank. I would also agree if you said "a bank with $10m in deposits needs to have at least $1m in reserves". |
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The bank can make $9m worth of loans (actually the bank can make any amount of loans, maybe even more), and some proportion of that may be transferred to other banks as reserves, and some other reserves will be transferred onto the banks balance sheet from unrelated transactions the bank makes. Then at the end of the day if the bank needs more reserves, it borrows them. The likely amount the bank needs to borrow based on the loans it makes and the cost of that reserve borrowing determines how many loans it will make. If it wouldn’t be profitable to make more, it’ll stop.
At no point does the bank only make 900k of loans so that it is fully covered in case all its loans are transferred out. The whole thesis of the paper is that that way of thinking is backwards.