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by popctrl
1778 days ago
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The idea that zero was "invented" at a certain time by recent humans and not in use until then has always seemed absolutely absurd to me. I will admit I haven't read deeply into it, but there's just no way people didn't have a concept for "none of a thing" until a couple millennia ago. One of the justifications used for this reasoning is "You don't go to the market and buy 0 fish". But all that tells us is: There's no reason to record buying 0 fish or owning 0 acres of land. Another justification given is the difficulty children experience with 0 - but we don't teach children to start counting with 0, so it makes sense that they would get tripped up there. I guess the argument sometimes seems to be that we didn't have a symbol for 0, and that this was somehow more confusing to adopt than other symbols? But if that's the case, then isn't claiming any culture "invented" zero the same as claiming a culture "invented" any concept they came up with a word for? I'd love to hear all the reasons I am wrong and stupid. |
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Indeed some of the ancient Greeks were of the opinion that 1 was not a number (since numbers were for counting a plurality of things).
It's quite the realisation that you can use the usual rules of arithmetic for 1 and 0, and not have anything go wrong. (Except of course division does go wrong!)