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by jcims
1865 days ago
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This is my laymans test for the FFT theory. Put in earbuds or a headset and (quietly) play sounds that are slightly different in frequency (1-10hz). You will still hear a sort of ethereal beat tone between them that's different than the beat you would hear if you were listening to the same through speakers. I don't see how this would occur frequency-domain perception and it's too present (at least in my experiment) to be attributed to bone conduction across the skull. |
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The hair cells in our cochlea function essentially as a great big FFT -- this is well-established -- and so our source neural input begins with that. The brain doesn't have access to the underlying waveform at all, as far as I'm aware. It is incredibly sensitive to the timing from each ear though (just as FFT includes phase information).
You can read all about what we do know here:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Neuronal_encoding_of_sound
Our brain does perform advanced signal processing to condense sets of overtones into a single fundamental frequency, which even works in the case of a "missing fundamental", and binaural beats are conceivably explained by this mechanism. Though it could be a different mechanism at work as well, related to how we process audio spatially.