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by jcims
1868 days ago
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The part that doesn't make sense to me is that the binaural beat frequency corresponds with the physical beat frequency of the sound. So if you got 432Hz in one ear and 428Hz in the other, you're going to hear a 4Hz beat frequency between the two. If the cochlea is effectively taste buds for sound, the only thing the brain is going to get is which part of the cochlea is being tickled. There's no time domain information there, just some ambiguous 'pitch'. If that's the case though, how does the brain know to synthesize the 4Hz differential between these two frequencies. The 432Hz and the 428Hz aren't making it to the brain, just the fact both ears are getting tickled in very close but different places. (Also my dad absolutely LOVED watching JSM and would always call us into the room any time he was doing one of his crazy experiments on TV. I agree his stuff is very 'sampleable' Edit: Just watched the video, it's actually a gold mine for hip hop lol. Just play this in the background and scrub around his videos - https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JVISRjhXzzM good thing it's friday (may need to fix volume) - http://www.youtubemultiplier.com/6095af3ba32b6-jsm-on-beats-...) |
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Looks like you know more than me about how our brains process audio. I was running on the assumption that some kind of frequency analysis made it to our higher processing centers, is that not the case? Given that what we hear all the time is incredibly chaotic (multiple pitches that we hear as chords, lyrics vs the rest of the music, focusing on one person speaking, etc) I thought we must at least be running some kind of internal spectrum analyzer and continuously comparing new input to previous averages or something.
There almost has to be a clock-like reference construct somewhere, right? The ability of some people to perceive perfect pitch points to it IMO.