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by hndamien 2246 days ago
Why does grammatical gender exist for toothpaste? I honestly don't understand this (English speaker).
1 comments
Tomte 2245 days ago
Every noun has a grammatical gender in German. It just does. There does not need to be a (contemporary) reason.

Why does declination of nouns exist in German, is almost non-existant in English, more pronounced in Latin, and even more of it in Ancient Greek?

Is one of these languages defective? Should they shed their cases?

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hndamien 2239 days ago
Maybe. I just can't wrap my head around what useful function they provide for communication. I'd love to be enlightened.
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