[Tomte]

Every noun has a grammatical gender in German. It just does. There does not need to be a (contemporary) reason.

Why does declination of nouns exist in German, is almost non-existant in English, more pronounced in Latin, and even more of it in Ancient Greek?

Is one of these languages defective? Should they shed their cases?

[hndamien]

Maybe. I just can't wrap my head around what useful function they provide for communication. I'd love to be enlightened.